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What is right Anglo-Saxons name of Poland: Poland, Pōlanlande or Pōlaland? --Kynikos 02:36, 20 Hrēþmōnaþ 2009 (UTC)

Pōland is the regular nominative form, but with the -e ending, that would be the dative singular form. "This is Pōlaland," and "I am in Pōlalande." — ᚹᚩᛞᛖᚾᚻᛖᛚᛗ 04:25, 20 Hrēþmōnaþ 2009 (UTC)
As far as I am aware, "Poland" is not mentioned in any text. Ohthere mentioned the Winedum (dat). Wulfstan wrote of Weonodland (or Weonoðland at one point), along the Baltic coast, which is clearly the same as the German "Wend" or Latin "Venedoti".
Poland as a state was perhaps founded too late to appear in Englisc texts.
Arguing about what the length of the vowel is in a word which did not exist in the language is something that is not found even in the highest of academic ivory towers.
Hogweard 22:34, 20 Hrēþmōnaþ 2009 (UTC)
Then what do you suggest we call the place? "The-land-that-people-now-call-Poland-but-we-didnt-call-Poland-back-then-because-it-didnt-exist-as-a-political-entity-so-therefore-we-cant-call-it-Poland"? — ᚹᚩᛞᛖᚾᚻᛖᛚᛗ 11:40, 21 Hrēþmōnaþ 2009 (UTC)
Well, if someone can demonstrate that Weonodland = Poland then use that. If it just means Slav Country, or Pomerania, we can't. Poland it is. My objection was only to the suggested macron; the vowel was never pronounced long, because it was never pronounced!
Hogweard 23:02, 14 Ēastermōnaþ 2009 (UTC)

True, but we're not reviving the past. Israel revived their tongue and filled in the missing pieces, we can do the same here. Perhaps see what other languages are calling it. — ᚹᚩᛞᛖᚾᚻᛖᛚᛗ 22:26, 24 Hrēþmōnaþ 2010 (UTC)